Port Blair, June 4
The Common Entrance Test (CET) was held on 03/06/2024 for the GP Rating Course. The answer key has been uploaded in the portal CLICK HERE for inviting claims and objections from the candidates, for a duration of 24 hours a press release from DBRAIT said.
Key for CET for GP Rating Program held on 03/06/2024 (The Option shown in Bold letter is the Key for the question)
Section: Science
Q1. A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with
a) Avogadro’s law
b) Law of multiple proportion
c) Law of conservation of mass
d) Law of gaseous volume
Q2. Chemically rust is
a) Hydrate ferrous oxide
b) Hydrated ferric oxide
c) Only ferric oxide
d) Nitric oxide
Q3. The acid used in making vinegar is
a) Formic acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Sulphuric acid
d) Nitric acid
Q4. Bleaching powder gives smell of chlorine because
a) It is unstable
b) Gives chlorine on exposure to atmosphere
c) Is a mixture of chlorine and slaked lime
d) Contains excess of chlorine
Q5. The acid found in an Ant sting is
a) Acetic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Tartaric acid
d) Methanoic acid
Q6. Which of the following elements is not present is
stainless steel
a) Iron
b) Tungsten
c) Chromium
d) Nickel
Q7. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
a) Fused NaCl
b) Solid NaCl
c) Brine solution
d) Copper
Q8. Which of the following is not a saturate
hydrocarbon
a) Cyclohexane
b) Benzene
c) Butane
d) Isobutane
Q9. Bauxite is an ore of
a) Iron
b) Aluminum
c) Mercury
d) Copper
Q10. In shaving creams ………. Is added to prevent
rapid drying?
a) Methanol
b) Glycerol
c) Ethanol
d) Glycol
Q11. Which one of the following juices secreted in
human body does not contain any enzyme
a) Salivary juice
b) Bile juice
c) Gastric juice
d) Pancreatic juice
Q12. In artificial kidney which substance passes from
the blood to the dialysis fluid?
a) Urea
b) Heart
c) Uric acid
d) Creatinine
Q13. The ultimate cause for the movement of water
against the gravity in a tree is
a) Osmosis
b) Transpiration
c) Imbibitions
d) Photosynthesis
Q14. The organism having parasitic mode of nutrition is
a) Pencillium
b) Plasmodium
c) Paramecium
d) Parrot
Q15. Saliva contains an enzyme called
a) Trypsin
b) Ptyalin
c) Amylase
d) Pepsin
MCQ for CET for GP Rating Program
Section -Math
Q16. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are equal, then the
numbers will be
a) Composite
b) Prime
c) Equal
d) Co-prime
Q17. The largest number that divides 588,1999 and 1650
leaving 3,10 and 12 respectively is.
a) 117
b) 109
c) 27
d) 43
Q18. The sum three non -zero prime number is 100. One of
them exceeds the other by 36. Then the largest number is
a) 73
b) 97
c) 67
d) 57
Q19. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing
the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and
the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number?
a) 240
b) 270
c) 295
d) 260
Q20. In an election between two candidates, one got 55%
of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were invalid. If the
total number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes
that the other candidate got, was
a) 2700
b) 2900
c) 300
d) 3100
Q21. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples
and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had…..apples
a) 588
b) 600
c) 672
d) 700
Q22. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815
in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is Rs………
a) 650
b) 690
c) 698
d) 700
Q23. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
a) 31
b) 61
c) 71
d) 91
Q24. Rohit is 6 feet tall. At an instant his shadow is 5 feet
long. At the same instant the shadow of a pole is 30 feet
long. How tall is the pole
a) 12 feet
b) 24 feet
c) 30 feet
d) 36 feet
Q25. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling
price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is
a) 15
b) 16
c) 18
d) 25
Q26. The area of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are in
the ratio 9:16. If BC =4.5 cm, then the length of QR is …..cm
a) 4
b) 4.5
c) 3
d) 6
Q27. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still
water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time
taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream
a) 2 hours
b) 3 hours
c) 4 hours
d) 5 hours
Q28. Find the general term of the series 4,7,10,13….
a) 3n -7
b) 3n +7
c) 3n +1
d) 3n -1
Q29. A cone and a hemisphere have equal base diameter and
equal volumes. The ratio of their heights is
a) 3:1
b) 2:1
c) 1;2
d) 1:3
Q30. From a series of 50 observations, an observation 45 is
dropped, but the mean remains he same. What was the mean
of 50 observations?
a) 50
b) 49
c) 45
d) 40
Section -English
Q31. Choose the right word from the following for
the sentence “One not concerned with right or wrong
is called”
a) Moral
b) Amoral
c) Immoral
d) Immortal
Q32. A place where government / public records are kept is called a) Museum b) Archive c) Shelf d) Cellar
Q33. A piece of writing done by hand is called a
a) Script
b) Manuscript
c) Essay
d) Copy
Q34. Choose the incorrectly spelt word:
a) Slaughter
b) Cropping
c) Tyrannical
d) Trafficking
Q35. Identify the tense of the following sentence:
“I had spoken.”
a) Present Perfect Tense
b) Past Perfect Tense
c) Simple Past Tense
d) Future Perfect Tense
Q36. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: If you try to do something every day you will progress. a) Hold b) Get c) Make d) Catch
Q37. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice: Had they not cleared the exam?a) Is the exam not been cleared by them? b) Have the exam not been cleared by them? c) Had the exam not been cleared by them? d) Was the exam not been cleared by them?
Q38. Select the most appropriate antonym of the
given word: Inevitable.
a) Assured
b) Inexorable
c) Avoidable
d) Intolerable
Q39. Fill in the blanks in the following sentence with appropriate articles: Football is one of _________ most popular sports in World. a) a , a b) a, the c) the, a d) the, the
Q40. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: The anchor gave us a welcome, a pleasant smile and a bouquet
on reaching the hotel.
a) Warm
b) Worth
c) Winning
d) Worm
Q41. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:
Raze.
a) Comfort
b) Ease
c) Ruin
d) Build
Q42. The following sentence has been split into four segments.
Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. “One can
never imagine / how hot it gets in Delhi / unless one doesn’t go /
there in person.”
a) One can never imagine
b) how hot it gets in Delhi
c) unless one doesn’t go
d) there in person
Q43. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute
for the given group of words: A place where coins and medals
are made.
a) Bank
b) Mint
c) Mine
d) Barn
Q44. Which of the options is an example of future perfect continuous tense? a) He will have been speaking. b) He will be speaking. c) He had been speaking. d) He will speak.
Section –General Knowledge
Q45. Fill in the blank: Many camels together would be called a ________ of camels.
a) String
b) Troop
c) Group
d) Pack
Q46. The compartments maintained specially to
carry water, which serves the purpose of mostly
stabilizing the vessel/ship is called
a) Hatch Tank
b) Balance Tank
c) Ballast Tank
d) Stable Tank
Q47. Deendayal Port is situated in which state
a) Goa
b) Maharashtra
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
Q48. The distance between the waterline and keel
of the ship is known as
a) Hull
b) Freeboard
c) Draft
d) Dec
Q49. The deepest artificial port in India
a) Vishakhapatnam
b) Krishnapatnam
c) Murmagaon
d) Kandla
Q50. Garampani sanctuary is located at
a) Gangtok, Sikkim
b) Kohima, Nagaland
c) Diphu, Assam
d) Junagarh, Gujarat