Answer Key For For Post Of Industries Promotion Officer Under Directorate Of Industries.

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1. Merchant’ is related to ‘Trade’ in the same way as ‘Doctor’ is related to:

(A) Medicine

(B) Prescription

(D) Examination

Answer: (D) Examination

2. Fish’ is related to ‘Pisciculture’ in the same way as ‘Bees’ is related to: (A) Horticulture (B) Apiculture (C) Sericulture (D) Viticulture Answer:

(B) Apiculture 3. Out of the four options given below, three are of a kind while one does not belong to the group. Choose the one which is unlike the others.

(A) Circle: arc (B) TV: Screen (C) Book: Cover (D) Laptop: Charger

Answer: (D) Laptop: Charger

4. “What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series? 114 11510713470?” (A) 140

(B) 35

(D) 150

Answer: (C) 195

5. In a certain code, WORKABLE is written as VOYZPILD, how will BLUNDERS be written in same code?

(A) CMVOEST

(B) TSEOVMC

(D) HIVWMFOY

Answer: (D) HIVWMFOY

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6. “All purses are mobile. All mobile are phones. Some mobiles are rings. No ring is purse. Which Conclusion is right?”

(A) Some purse is ring.

(B) No mobile is ring.

(D) All rings are mobile.

Answer: (C) Some phones are purse.

7. There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sitting in a line facing west.

E is to the immediate right of G.

B is at one of the extreme ends and has E as his neighbor.

G is between E and F.

C is sitting second from the south end.

Who is sitting at the southern end?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) E

Answer: (A) A

8. “A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’ Which of the following means P is grandson of S?” (A) P + Q – S (B) P ÷ Q × S (C) P ÷ Q + S (D) P × Q ÷ S

Answer: (C) P ÷ Q + S 9. Spider : Insect : : Crocodile : ?

(A) Reptile

(B) Mammal (C) Frog (D) Carnivore Answer:

(A) Reptile 10. “A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’ In the expression ‘P + Q Ã— T’ how is T related to P ?”

(A) Mother

(B) Father

(D) Brother

Answer: (B) Father

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11. Milk : Emulsion : : Butter : ?

(A) Aerosol

(B) Suspension

(D) Gel

Answer: (D) Gel

12. “A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’ There is sufficient food for 116 men for25 days. After 21 days, 100 men leave the place. For how many days will the rest of the food last for the rest of me men?”

(A) 19 days

(B) 24 days

(D) 15 days

Answer: (C) 29 days

13. “All silver are metals. All metals are steel. Some steels are stones. All stones are stands. I. Some stands are metals. II. Some stones are silver. III. Some stands are steel. IV. Some stones are steel.”

(A) Only III and IV follow

(B) Only I follows

(D) Only III follows

Answer: (A) Only III and IV follow

14. “All chairs are tables. All tables are songs. Some songs are rhythms. Some rhythms are pillows. I. Some tables are chairs. II. All tables are rhythms. III. All chairs are songs. IV. Some pillows are songs.” (A) Only I and III follow

(B) Only I and IV follow

(D) Only III follows

Answer: (A) Only I and III follow

15. “Some mobiles are pens. Some pens are covers. Some covers are plates. All plates are papers.

I. All mobiles are covers.

II. Some pens are papers.

III. All plates are pens.

IV. Some papers are mobiles.”

(A) Only I follows

(B) Only II follows

(D) None follows

Answer: (D) None follows

16. “All shoes are tables. Some tables are lanes. All caps are lanes. Some lanes are row. I. Some tables are rows. II. Some tables are shoes. III. Some rows are caps. IV. Some lanes are shoes.”

(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only II follows

(D) Only either I or IV follows

Answer: (B) Only II follows

17. “All brands are bottles. All bottles are machines. All machines are files. All files are roots. I. Some flies are machines. II. Some brands are roots. III. Some machines are roots. IV. All brands are flies.”

(A) None follows

(B) Only I follows

(D) All follow Answer: (D) All follow

18. I came _____ America. (A) from (B) at (C) in

(D) on

Answer: (A) from

19. I ____ cold. (A) am (B) have (C) had (D) is Answer: (A) am 20. ______ car is very old fashioned. (A) Fatima’s (B) Fatima is

21. I speak English but he_______.

(A) doesn’t speaks (B) doesn’t speak

(C) speaks (D) don’t speak Answer: (B) doesn’t speak 22. Nowadays everyone ______ internet. (A) had used (B) uses (C) used (D) use

Answer: (B) uses 23. ______ there anybody in the room?

(A) Are (B) is (C) am (D) if Answer: (A) Are

24. Where_____ John and Marry yesterday?

(A) was (B) were (C) had been (D) had

Answer: (B) were 25. How long__________ learning English? (A) have you been (B) are you (C) did you (D) had you Answer: (A) have you been 26. Are you _______ than her? (A) more tall (B) taller (C) most tall (D) tallest Answer: (B) taller 27. You______ see a doctor. (A) should (B) have to (C) must (D) all of them Answer: (D) all of them 28. After this you should drive__________. (A) more carefully (B) more careful (C) carefully (D) carefull Answer: (A) more carefully 29. Do you go to school? _________ (A) yes, I go (B) yes, I do (C) yes, I am going (D) yes, I am Answer: (A) yes, I go 30. You____ go to school. (A) have to (B) are forced to (C) have (D) are ordered to Answer: (A) have to 31. I hope everyone_____ learned something from this. (A) had (B) have (C) has (D) has to Answer: (C) has 32. Which value is reflected in Heracles? (A) taking care of one’s children. (B) disobeying the gods to follow one’s path. (C) disobeying the rules to achieve one’s goals. (D) taking responsibility for one’s actions Answer: (A) taking care of one’s children 33. Select the synonym of carnal (A) spiritual (B) sensual (C) decent (D) chaste Answer: (B) sensual 34. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice: Sujata shared the results of her experiment with her colleagues. (A) Her colleagues shared the results of her experiment with Sujata (B) The results of her experiment are being shared with her colleagues by Sujata (C) The results of her experiment were shared with her colleagues by Sujata (D) The results of her experiment can be shared with her colleagues by Sujata Answer: (B) The results of her experiment are being shared with her colleagues by Sujata 35. Kandangi saree, which has got GI tag, is associated to which state? (A) Karnataka (B) Kerala (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu 36. Peacock parachute spider, which is recently spotted in Eastern Ghat, belongs to the genus (A) Chilobrachys (B) Poecilotheria (C) Avicularia (D) Mygalomorphae Answer: (B) Poecilotheria 37. Where was the India’s first automated battery charging and changing station for ebuses inaugurated? (A) Ahmedabad (B) Chennai (C) Bangalore (D) New Delhi Answer: (A) Ahmedabad 38. Which mobile application is launched by the government to search for generic medicines? (A) Janaushadhi Sarvada (B) Janaushadhi Service (C) Janaushadhi Safalam (D) Janaushadhi Sugam Answer: (D) Janaushadhi Sugam 39. Recently launched book ‘listening, learning and reading’ is based on which leader? (A) Narendra Modi (B) Amit Shah (C) M. Venkaiah Naidu (D) Ram Nath Kovind Answer: (C) M. Venkaiah Naidu 40. The book ‘Idea of Justice’ is written by (A) Amitabh Ghosh (B) Amartya Sen (C) Jaswant Singh (D) S.S. Sodhi Answer: (B) Amartya Sen 41. From which of the following taxes, the central government gets the maximum revenue? (A) Corporate Tax (B) Income Tax (C) Excise Duties (D) Custom Duties Answer: (A) Corporate Tax 42. Which one of the following is the first private telecom company to get a licence to launch a long-distance phone service in India? (A) Bharti Telesonic (B) Nokia (C) Reliance (D) Airtel Answer: (A) Bharti Telesonic 43. ‘Namami Gange’ is associated with for clean Ganga- (A) National Mission (B) Ganga Action Plan (C) Smart City Mission (D) AMRUT Answer: (A) National Mission 44. The organization which looks after the credit needs of agriculture and rural development is- (A) FCI (B) NABARD (C) IDBI (D) ICAR Answer: (B) NABARD 45. Who got the Nobel Peace Prize 2019? (A) Olga Tokarczuk (B) Abiy Ahmed Ali (C) Peter Handke (D) Michael Kremer Answer: (B) Abiy Ahmed Ali 46. Where is Saddle Peak in Andaman and Nicobar Islands situated? (A) Great Nicobar (B) Middle Andaman (C) Little Andaman (D) Northern Andaman Answer: (D) Northern Andaman 47. What is the name of the disputed coastal area located far from the Gujarat coast between India and Pakistan? (A) Gulf of Cambay (B) Sir Creek (C) Gulf of Khambhat (D) Mouth of Indus Answer: (B) Sir Creek 48. River Indus originates at: (A) Hindukush range (B) Himalayan range (C) Karakoram range (D) Kailash range

Answer: (C) Karakoram range 49. Wahabis were ________ fanatics.

(A) Hindu (B) Muslim (C) Christian

(D) Sikh

Answer: (B) Muslim

50. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay? (A) Shiva Narayan Agnihotri

(B) Ramabai Ranade

(D) B.K. Jayakar

Answer: (B) Ramabai Ranade

51. The capital that is consumed by an economy or a firm in the production process is known as

(A) Capital loss (B) Production cost

(D) Depreciation Answer: (D) Depreciation

52. Which among the following statement is INCORRECT?

(A) On a linear demand curve, all the five forms of elasticity can be depicted

(B) If two demand curves are linear and intersecting each other, then, coefficient of elasticity would be same on different demand curves at the point of intersection.

(C) If two demand curves are linear and parallel to each other, then, at a particular price, the coefficient of elasticity would be different on different demand curves.

(D) The price elasticity of demand is expressed in terms of relaive not absolute changes in Price and Quantity demanded.

Answer: (C) If two demand curves are linear and parallel to each other, then, at a particular price, the coefficient of elasticity would be different on different demand curves.

53. The horizontal demand curve parallel to x-axis implies that the elasticity of demand is

(A) Zero

(B) Infinite

(D) Greater than zero but less than infinity

Answer: (B) Infinite

54. The producer’s demand for a factor of production is governed by the ____ of the factor.

(A) Price will decrease

(B) Marginal productivity

(D) Profitability

Answer: (B) Marginal productivity

55. The mean and standard deviation of a sample size 10 were found to be 9.5 and 2.5 respectively. Later on, an additional observation become available. This was 15.0 and was included in the original sample. The mean and standard deviation of 11 observations will be

(A) 10 and 2.5

(B) 10 and 2.86

(D) 12 and 4.86

Answer: (B) 10 and 2.86

56. What is the mode of 5, 7, 9, 12, 10, 15, 7, 8, 7, 25? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 25 (D) 9 Answer: (A) 7 57. Which of the following statements about the production possibility curve is accurate? (A) The main reason for the rightward shift of the production possibility curve is war (B) The main reason for the rightward shift of the production possibility curve is migration (C) The main reason for the rightward shift of the production possibility curve is skill development programmes (D) The main reason for the rightward shift of the production possibility curve is natural disasters Answer: (C) The main reason for the rightward shift of the production possibility curve is skill development programmes 58. Which of the following statements reflect the correct situation related to the allocation of the resources? (A) Allocation of the resources comes under the causes of economic problems (B) Allocation of the resources comes under the causes of opportunity cost (C) Allocation of the resources comes under the causes of central problems (D) Allocation of the resources comes under the causes of marginal demand Answer: (C) Allocation of the resources comes under the causes of central problems 59. Which of the following statements about the production possibility curve is true? (A) If a point falls inside the production possibility curve, it indicates that the resources are over utilised (B) If a point falls inside the production possibility curve, it indicates that the resources are underutilised (C) If a point falls inside the production possibility curve, it indicates that there is adequate employment in the economy (D) If a point falls inside the production possibility curve, it indicates that there is inadequate employment in the economy Answer: (B) If a point falls inside the production possibility curve, it indicates that the resources are underutilised 60. (x + y) (x – y) = (A) x2 + 2xy − y2 (B) x2 − 2xy + y2 (C) x2 − y2 (D) x2 + yx − y2 Answer: (C) x2 − y2 61. What would be the overall effect on aggregate output if there is an increase in the planned investment spending? (A) The aggregate output will increase by an amount that is less than the change in investment spending (B) The aggregate output will increase by an amount that is greater than the change in investment spending (C) The aggregate output will increase by an amount that is equal to the change in investment spending (D) The aggregate output will decrease by an amount that is less than the change in investment spending Answer: (C) The aggregate output will increase by an amount that is equal to the change in investment spending 62. Which of the following statements is accurate about the free market in a nation’s economy? (A) It is an economy with minimal intervention from the government in trade and minimal regulations (B) It is an economy with maximum intervention from the government in trade and maximum regulations (C) It is an economy with maximum intervention from the government in trade and minimal regulations (D) It is an economy with minimal intervention from the government in trade and maximum regulations Answer: (A) It is an economy with minimal intervention from the government in trade and minimal regulations 63. Which of the following statements is accurate about the two-sector economy? (A) The two-sector economy consists of firms and the government (B) The two-sector economy consists of firms and foreign sector (C) The two-sector economy consists of households and government (D) The two-sector economy consists of households and firms Answer: (D) The two-sector economy consists of households and firms 64. What distinguishes a bank from other financial institutions? (A) Accepting time deposits as a courtesy (B) Accepting demand deposits (C) Lending (D) Accepting loans and borrowings Answer: (B) Accepting demand deposits 65. Given CRR = 4% and SLR = 16%, the value of the money multiplier is: (A) 5 (B) 25 (C) 8.33 (D) 6.25 Answer: (A) 5 66. A primary reason why nations conduct international trade is because (A) Some nations prefer to produce one thing while others produce another (B) Resources are not equally distributed to all trading nations (C) Trade enhances opportunities to accumulate profits (D) Interest rates are not identical in all trading nations Answer: (B) Resources are not equally distributed to all trading nations 67. A main advantage of specialization results from: (A) Economics of large-scale production (B) The specializing country behaving as a monopoly (C) Smaller production runs resulting in lower unit costs. (D) High wages paid to foreign workers Answer: (A) Economics of large-scale production 68. “Consider the following statements and identify the right ones. i. Central government does not have exclusive power to impose tax which is not mentioned in state or concurrent list. ii. The constitution also provides for transferring certain tax revenues from union list to states.” (A) i only (B) ii only (C) both (D) none Answer: (B) ii only 69. The tax on net income of companies is (A) Personal income tax (B) Interest tax (C) Wealth tax (D) Corporation tax Answer: (D) Corporation tax 70. A Type I error occurs when we: (A) reject a false null hypothesis (B) reject a true null hypothesis (C) do not reject a false null hypothesis (D) do not reject a true null hypothesis Answer: (B) reject a true null hypothesis 71. What is the meaning of the term “heteroscedasticity”? (A) The variance of the errors is not constant (B) The variance of the dependent variable is not constant (C) The errors are not linearly independent of one another (D) The errors have non- zero mean Answer: (A) The variance of the errors is not constant 72. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is a wholly owned subsidiary of which of the following? (A) SBI (B) RBI (C) ICICI (D) SEBI Answer: (B) RBI 73. For which of the commodities the unit bpd is used in international trade? (A) Meat & Livestock (B) Precious Metals (C) Industrial metals (D) Crude oil Answer: (D) Crude oil 74. Which among the following regulates the opening of bank accounts overseas by Indian residents and for outward or inward remission of funds through authorized channels? (A) Ministry of External Affairs (B) Ministry of Finance (C) Ministry of Overseas Indians (D) RBI Answer: (D) RBI 75. The concept Industrial Reserve Army is introduced by (A) Turgot (B) Karl Marx (C) Joan Robinson (D) J.S. Mill Answer: (B) Karl Marx 76. __________ is a specialised branch of accounting that keeps track of a company’s financial transactions. (A) Cost accounting (B) Management accounting (C) Financial Accounting (D) Corporate accounting Answer: (C) Financial Accounting 77. Financial accountancy is governed by ___________ (A) local standards only (B) international standards (C) local as well as international accounting standards (D) company’s internal top management only Answer: (C) local as well as international accounting standards 78. In which of the following business organisations there is separation of ownership and management? (A) Sole-proprietorship (B) Partnership (C) Hindu undivided family (D) Company Answer: (D) Company 79. The accounting standards Board (India) was formed by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India in April————— (A) 1977 (B) 1978 (C) 2001 (D) 2009 Answer: (A) 1977 80. Accounting Standards in India are Issued by the ……….. (A) ICAI (B) BMCC (C) IT (D) IMA Answer: (A) ICAI 81. Law is either private law or _________ law. (A) Public (B) Private (C) Local (D) Family Answer: (A) Public 82. Basic objective of cost accounting is ________ (A) tax compliance. (B) financial audit. (C) cost ascertainment. (D) profit analysis. Answer: (C) cost ascertainment. 83. Process costing is suitable for ________. (A) hospitals (B) oil refing firms (C) transport firms (D) brick laying firms Answer: (B) oil refing firms 84. Cost classification can be done in ________. (A) two ways (B) three ways (C) four ways (D) several ways Answer: (D) several ways 85. If Y = aX ± b, where a and b are any two constants and a ∦ 0, then the quartile deviation of Y values is equal to: (A) a Q.D(X) + b (B) ∣a∣ Q.D(X) (C) Q.D(X) – b (D) ∣b∣ Q.D(X) Answer: (B) ∣a∣ Q.D(X) 86. For a symmetrical distribution: (A) β1 > 0 (B) β1 < 0 (C) β1 = 0 (D) β1= 3 Answer: (C) β1 = 0 87. Which of the following is an absolute measure of dispersion? (A) Coefficient of variation (B) Coefficient of dispersion (C) Standard deviation (D) Coefficient of skewness Answer: (C) Standard deviation 88. _________ refers to accounting relating to corporate bodies or joint stock companies. (A) Financial accounting (B) Corporate Accounting (C) Cost accounting (D) Management accounting Answer: (B) Corporate Accounting 89. East India Company is an example of ________ (A) Chartered Companies (B) Statutory Companies (C) Registered Companies (D) OPC Answer: (A) Chartered Companies 90. What is considered the language of business used to communicate financial information? (A) Marketing (B) Profit (C) Pricing (D) Accounting Answer: (D) Accounting 91. The meaning of the acronym HRM is (A) Human Relations Management (B) Humanistic Resource Management (C) Human Resource Management (D) Human Resourceful Management Answer: (C) Human Resource Management 92. When did the Companies Act 2013 came into force? (A) 5th August 2013 (B) 10th August 2013 (C) 15th August 2013 (D) 20th August 2013 Answer: (D) 20th August 2013 93. Any contaminated components that seep into the soil, filtration, and are transferred into the underground reservoir are referred to as (A) Water Pollution (B) Noise Pollution (C) Land Contamination (D) Air pollution. Answer: (C) Land Contamination 94. Income Tax Act, 1961 came into force on: (A) 1 – 1 – 1961 (B) 1 – 4 – 1961 (C) 1 – 1 – 1962 (D) 1 – 4 – 1962 Answer: (D) 1 – 4 – 1962 95. The term money has been derived from the Latin Word: (A) Moneta (B) Peconja (C) Monate (D) Menoty Answer: (A) Moneta 96. operating costing is a ________. (A) method of costing (B) technique of costing (C) norm of costing (D) procedure of costing Answer: (A) method of costing 97. Investment can be defined as (A) Person’s dedication to purchasing a house or flat (B) Use of capital on assets to receive returns (C) Usage of money on a production process of products and services (D) Net additions made to the nation’s capital stocks Answer: (B) Use of capital on assets to receive returns 98. The finance manager is accountable for. (A) Earning capital assets of the company (B) Effective management of a fund (C) Arrangement of financial resources (D) Proper utilisation of funds Answer: (C) Arrangement of financial resources 99. What is the purpose of a certificate of origin in the export process? (A) To assess the creditworthiness of the importer (B) To provide details of the goods and terms of export (C) To obtain an export license (D) To prove the origin of the goods for tariff concessions or exemptions Answer: (D) To prove the origin of the goods for tariff concessions or exemptions 100. Which document is required to obtain an export license? (A) Export Invoice (B) Import Export Code (IEC) number (C) Certificate of Inspection (D) Registering with Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) Answer: (B) Import Export Code (IEC) number