1. The name of the great maestro of Indian Music “Ustad Bismillah Khan” is
related to which instrument?
(A) Shehnai
(B) Flute
(C) Tabla
(D) Sarod
Answer: “Shehnai”
2. Which state is the host of the 26th National Youth Festival?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Bihar
(D) West Bengal
Answer: “Karnataka”
3. How many national Level multistate cooperative export societies have been
approved by the Union Cabinet?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) Seven
Answer: “Three”
4. Which of the following pollutant is the most harmful?
(A) NO2
(B) CO2
(C) SO2
(D) CO
Answer: “SO2”
5. For how many days did Mahatma Gandhi’s volunteers of the Salt satyagraha
walk?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 12
(D) 6
Answer: “24”
6. Which of the following is called as the leader of Lok Sabha?
(A) Speaker
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Deputy Speaker
Answer: “Prime Minister”
7. Which of the following is the correct coastal length of India including the
islands?
(A) 5000 km
(B) 5631 km
(C) 7517 km
(D) 8216 km
Answer: “7517 km”
8. Which of the following passes is situated at the highest elevation?
(A) Nathu La
(B) Jelep La
(C) Rohtang
(D) Zoji La
Answer: “Nathu La”
9. Which planet disappeared from sight on September 14, due to a phenomenon
called ‘Lunar occultation’?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Uranus
(D) Saturn
Answer: “Uranus”
10. Which major tech company announced to change its policy to comply with the Competition Commission of India (CCI)’s directives?
(A) Meta
(B) Microsoft
(C) Google
(D) Amazon
Answer: “Google”
11. Velocity of sound in air does not depend on_______:
(A) Density of air
(B) Temperature of air
(C) Pressure of air
(D) Humidity of air
Answer: “Pressure of air”
12. If cream is removed from milk, its density__:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) May increase or decrease
Answer: “Increases”
13. The wall of a dam is made thicker at the bottom than at the top because the
pressure exerted by the water on the wall__:
(A) depends on the thickness of the wall
(B) increases with height of the wall
(C) increases with depth of the wall
(D) depends on the area of the wall
Answer: “increases with depth of the wall”
14. The property of catenation is predominant in:
(A) sulphur
(B) nitrogen
(C) silicon
(D) carbon
Answer: “carbon”
15. Bauxite is an alloy of which of the following metals?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Silver
(C) Tin
(D) Iron
Answer: “Aluminium”
16. Interveinal necrotic spots on leaves appear due to:
(A) HF injury
(B) SO2 injury
(C) NO2 injury
(D) O3 injury
Answer: “SO2 injury”
17. Which of the following is secreted by the liver?
(A) Gastric juice
(B) Saliva
(C) Pancreatic juice
(D) Bile juice
Answer: “Bile juice”
18 The impure blood from the right ventricle goes into –
(A) liver
(B) lungs
(C) heart
(D) brain
Answer: “lungs”
19. Which of the following vitamin is water-soluble?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K
Answer: “Vitamin C”
20.Which part of the alimentary canal receives the bile from the liver?
(A) Small intestine
(B) Large intestine
(C) Stomach
(D) liver
Answer: “Small intestine
21.The main goal of treatment for acute glomerulonephritis is to:
(A)encourage activity.
(B)encourage high protein intake.
(C)maintain fluid balance.
(D)teach intermittent urinary catheterization.
Answer: “maintain fluid balance”
22.The most common, preventable complication of abdominal surgery is:
(A)Atelectasis
(B)fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
(C)Thrombophlebitis
(D)urinary retention.
Answer: “Atelectasis”
23.To prepare a patient on the unit for a bronchoscopic procedure, the medical surgical nurse administers the IV sedative. The nurse then instructs the licensed practical/vocational nurse to:
(A) educate the patient about the pending procedure.
(B) give the patient small sips of water only.
(C) measure the patient’s blood pressure and pulse readings.
(D take the patient to the bathroom one more time.
Answer: “measure the patient’s blood pressure and pulse readings”
24. Which action best describes a sentinel event alert?
(A) Documenting the breakdown in communication during a shift report.
(B) Indicating that a community or institution is unsafe.
(C) Recording the harm done when a medication error occurs.
(D) Signalling the need for immediate investigation and response.
Answer: “Signalling the need for immediate investigation and response”
25. A nursing department in an acute care seeing decides to redesign its nursing
practice based on a theoretical framework. The feedback from patients,
families, and staff reflects that caring is a key element. Which theorist best
supports this concept?
(A) Erikson
(B) Maslow
(C) Rogers
(D) Watson
Answer: “Watson”
26. The first step in applying the quality improvement process to an activity in a
clinical seeing is to:
(A) assemble a team to review and revise the activity.
(B) collect data to measure the status of the activity.
(C) select an activity for improvement.
(D) set a measurable standard for the activity.
Answer: “select an activity for improvement”
27.Asthma is a chronic disorder that causes
(A) Pneumonia
(B) skin rashes
(C) heart blockage
(D) inflammation in the airway
Answer: “inflammation in the airway”
28. While performing physical examination of the newborn testis could not be
palpated in the scrotum. The failure of the testis to descend normally through
the inguinal canal is called as
(A) Chordee
(B) Epispadias
(C) Hypospadias
(D) Cryptorchidism
Answer: “Cryptorchidism”
29. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a measure of –
(A) Neurological assessment
(B) Level of consciousness (LOC)
(C) Fluid volume
(D) Intra cranial pressure (ICP)
Answer: “Level of consciousness (LOC)”
30. Which are the following medications would the nurse anticipate the physician
would order to increase the blood pressure for a patient with septic shock-
(A) Atropine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Digoxin
(D) Nitro-glycerine
Answer: “Dopamine”
31.The Non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension include all except:
(A) Age
(B) Genetic factors
(C) Obesity
(D) Sex
Answer: “Obesity”
32. The benign tumour of blood vessel is called-
(A) Haemangioma
(B) Myoma
(C) Lipoma
(D) Adenoma
Answer: “Haemangioma”
33. Which is not an example of S.T.D
(A)Hepatitis-A
(B) Syphilis
(C) AIDS
(D) Gono
Answer: “Hepatitis-A”
34.The test that is most specific for myocardial damage is-
(A) CK MB
(B)Myoglobin
(C)Troponin -I
(D)CK
Answer: “CK MB”
35.Which one of the following acons would a nurse take first when caring for a
patient experiencing a cardiac arrest-
(A) Initiate cardiac monitoring
(B) Provide intravenous access
(C) Establish an open airway
(D) Obtain a pulse oximetry reading
Answer: “Establish an open airway”
36.Which of the following are produced by microorganisms?
(A)Alcoholic beverages
(B)Fermented dairy products
(C)Breads
(D)All of the mentioned
Answer: “All of the mentioned”
37. The principal microorganism for yogurt is ______________________
(A) Leuconostoc citrovorum
(B) Streptococcus lactis
(C) Streptococcus thermophilus
(D) Lactobacillus acidophilus
Answer: “Streptococcus thermophilus”
38. Cardiac tamponade means
(A) Inflammation of myocardium
(B) Inflammation of epicardium
(C) Accumulation of fluid in pericardium
(D) Ventricular failure
Answer: “Accumulation of fluid in pericardium”
39. Paget`s disease is a
(A) Cardiac disease
(B) Respiratory disease
(C) Bone disease
(D) Urinary disease
Answer: “Bone disease”
40. What applies to a victim with a reduced consciousness?
(A) The victim is still capable to speak
(B) The victim is in shock
(C) The victim does not react to speaking and shaking
(D) The victim is still alert
Answer: “The victim is still capable to speak”
41. The most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesemia
(A) anorexia and nausea
(B) Constipation
(C)Lack of coordination
(D) Tetany
Answer: “Tetany”
42. Altruism means
(A) Right to self determination
(B) Respect for individual and population
(C) Concern for the welfare and well-being of others
(D) Respect the patient’s rights
Answer: “Concern for the welfare and well-being of others”
43. Implants used for orthopaedic surgeries generated to be discarded in
(A) Yellow bin
(B) Blue bin
(C) White bin
(D) Red bin
Answer: “Blue bin”
44. A patient reports abdominal pain that is difficult to localize. The nurse
documents this as which type of pain?
(A) Visceral pain
(B) superficial pain
(C) phantom pain
(D) Referred pain
Answer: “Visceral pain”
45. Which one of the following is not the components of braden scale?
(A) Sensory percepon
(B) Shear
(C) Mobility
(D) Length of hospital stay
Answer: “Length of hospital stay”
46. Antibodies are produced by the body in response to an antigen is referred as
(A) Passive immunity
(B) Active immunity
(C) Acquired immunity
(D) Innate immunity
Answer: “Active immunity”
47. When an ethical issue arises, one of the most important nursing responsibilities in managing client care situations is which of the following?
(A) Be able to defend the morality of one’s own actions
(B) Remain neutral and detached when making ethical decision
(C) Ensure that a team is responsible for deciding ethical questions.
(D) Follow the client and families’ wishes exactly
Answer: “Be able to defend the morality of one’s own actions”
48.The nurse plans to remove the client’s sutures which acon demonstrates not
appropriate standard of case?
(A) Use clean technique
(B) Grasp the suture at the knot with a pair of forceps
(C)Place the curved tip of the suture scissors under the suture as close to the skin as possible
(D) Remove alternate sutures first
Answer: “Use clean technique”
49. The specific accountability or liability associated with the performance of
duties of a particular role is known as,
(A) Veracity
(B) Beneficence
(C) Responsibility
(D) Justice
Answer: “Responsibility”
50.Which one of the following is not segregated in red category?
(A) Syringes with fixed needles
(B) Intravenous tubes and sets
(C) Rubber apron
(D) Catheters
Answer: “Syringes with fixed needles”
51. Which of the following solution is used for oral care for the prevention of
ventilator-associated pneumonia?
(A) Methyl salicylate
(B)Menthol solution
(C) Chlorhexidine
(D) Normal saline
Answer: “Chlorhexidine”
52. Which of the following is the drug of choice for Diabetes Insipidus?
(A) Desmopressin
(B) Dopamine
(C) Osmotic Diuretics
(D) Nor adrenaline
Answer: “Desmopressin”
53. While health education on anticoagulation therapy for the patient with valve
replacement surgery with a mechanical valve, which of the following statement
by a nurse about the therapeutic level of the drug is right?
(A) Maintain an International Normalized ratio of 1
(B) Maintain International Normalized ratio of 1.5-2.5
(C) Maintain International Normalized ratio of 2.5-3.5
(D)Maintain International Normalized ratio less than 1
Answer: “Maintain International Normalized ratio of 2.5-3.5”
54. Which of the following fibrinolytic drug is administered for the patient with
ischemic stroke?
(A) Streptokinase
(B) Heparin
(C) Urokinase
(D) Tissue plasminogen activator
Answer: “Tissue plasminogen activator”
55. Any stimulus that follows a behaviour and increases the likelihood that the
behaviour will be repeated is called a:
(A) Cue
(B) Punisher
(C) Reinforcer
(D)Situational stimulus
Answer: “Reinforcer”
56. The term used for a child’s one-word utierances is –
(A) Holophrases
(B) Telegraphic speech
(C) Under extensions
(D)None of these mentioned
Answer: “Holophrases”
57.The priority nursing intervention for the patient with an altered level of
consciousness is
(A) Prevention of bedsore
(B) Administration of enteral feeding
(C)Maintain patent airway
(D) Provide IV Access
Answer: “Maintain patent airway”
58. To keep the spinal column straight which of the following technique nurse must adopt to transfer the patient
(A) Using stretcher technique
(B) Log rolling
(C) Make the patient to sit then shift
(D)Ask the patient to turn to side then move
Answer: “Log rolling”
59. The first dose of post-exposure prophylaxis is to be administered within how
many hours for a person with a needle sck injury from an HIV paent?
(A) within 24 hours
(B) within 12 hours
(C) within 48 hours
(D) within 72 hours
Answer: “within 72 hours”
60. The amount of light entering the eye is determined by the size of the
(A) Retina
(B)Cornea
(C) Pupil
(D) Diaphragm
Answer: “Pupil”
61. Prolactin hormone is responsible for –
(A) Breast milk
(B) Height
(C) Vision
(D) Nutrition
Answer: “Breast milk”
62. Which gland is known as supra renal gland –
(A) Pituitary
(B) Thyroid
(C) Adrenal
(D) Pineal
Answer: “Adrenal”
63. Islets of Langerhans is part of –
(A) Pancreas
(B) Stomach
(C) Liver
(D) Thyroid
Answer: “Pancreas”
64. Which of the following can be a suitable area of study in the scope of
sociology?
(A) Trade
(B) community
(C) Education
(D) Individual
Answer: “community”
65. The eight-stage classification of human life is proposed by
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Pavel
(C) Strauss
(D) Erikson
Answer: “Erikson”
66. A client tells the nurse that his co-workers are sabotaging the computer. When the nurse asks questions, the client becomes argumentative. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?
(A) Encourage the client to vent his anger about his computer
(B) Tell the client that his co-workers haven’t touched his computer
(C) Use clear and consistent speech when talking to the client
(D) Tell the client to go to his room and stay there until he calms down
Answer: “Use clear and consistent speech when talking to the client”
67. A client with paranoid personality disorder is discussing current problems with
a nurse. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
(A) Have the client look at sources of frustration
(B) Have the client focus on ways to interact with others
(C) Have the client discuss the use of defence mechanisms
(D) Have the client clarify thoughts and belief about an event
Answer: “Have the client clarify thoughts and belief about an event”
68. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client
with an avoidant personality disorder?
(A) Risk for self-mutilation related to a desperate need for attention
(B) Ineffective coping related to negative attitudes toward health behaviour
(C) Anxiety related to fear of criticism, disapproval, and rejection
(D) Risk for injury related to uncontrolled anger and hostility toward others.
Answer: “Anxiety related to fear of criticism, disapproval, and rejection”
69. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding diagnosis under RNTCP?
(A) Cough for 2 weeks’ suspect T(B)
(B) Only 2 samples of sputum are needed
(C) Chest X ray is essential
(D) Only one positive sample is enough for diagnosis
Answer: “Chest X ray is essential”
70. Master Rohan has been brought to Sub centre at 11 months’ age for immunization. He has received BCG, Hep B-1, Pentavalent 1 and OPV-1 at 5 months of age. Which is most appropriate vaccine you can administer to him?
(A) Start from beginning as vaccine should be given at a 4-week interval.
(B) Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2 and Measles
(C) Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2
(D) Refer to PHC for seeking medical officer advice.
Answer: “Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2 and Measles”
71. Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT regarding DPT vaccine?
(A) A child who is allergic to DPT and develop encephalopathy should be replace
with DT/DTaP.
(B) If child has never received DPT, DPT vaccine can be given up to age of 9 year
(C) the gap between two doses of DPT must be 4 weeks to achieve opmum
antibody level.
(D) DPT is replaced by DT for children above 2 years.
Answer: “A child who is allergic to DPT and develop encephalopathy should be replace with DT/DTaP”
72. What is measles Catch up Campaign?
(A) A special campaign to vaccinate all children in wide range of age group in a
state.
(B) A special campaign to vaccinate all drop out child
(C) A special campaign to vaccinate all immunized child with booster dose.
(D) A special camp for early identification and treatment of measles.
Answer: “A special campaign to vaccinate all immunized child with booster
dose”
73. Baby Yoshika is 3-month-old and has been brought to you by parents
complaining of no scar formaon on BCG site. What will be your most
appropriate answer to the parents?
(A) Wait till one year if scar does not develop repeat the dose.
(B) Vaccine is not administered properly so; baby need to administered BCG
immediately.
(C) There is no need to re vaccinate the child
(D) Refer to Physician as child might has TB
Answer: “There is no need to re vaccinate the child”
74. Which of the following service is NOT available in Upgraded PHC?
(A) Child health and Nutrion
(B) Treatment for vector borne disease
(C) Treatment for Hearing Impairment
(D) Chest infection
Answer: “Treatment for Hearing Impairment”
75. Which of the following is INCORRECT about impact level target of NUHM?
(A) Reduce IMR by 40%
(B) Reduce MMR by 80%
(C) 100% institutional delivery
(D) Achieve TFR of 2.1
Answer: “Reduce MMR by 80%”
76. Under RBSK child screening and early intervention has 4 Ds. Which of the
following is NOT part of 4 Ds?
(A) Defect at birth
(B) Developmental delay
(C) Disability
(D) Deworming
Answer: “Deworming”
77. In which year, Rastriya Kishore Suraksha Karyakram was launched?
(A) 2007
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2017
Answer: “2014”
78. Which of the following is part of PHC strengthening acon plan under NRHM?
(A) Adequate and regular supply of essential drugs.
(B) Provision of 24 hours’ service in at least 80% of PHC
(C) Upgradaon of 50% PHCs for 24 hours’ referral services.
(D) Following availability-based treatment.
Answer: “Adequate and regular supply of essential drugs”
79. Mrs. Kalyani lives in urban area of low performing state. She delivered a girl
baby in hospital. How much incentive she should receive under Janani Suraksha
Yojana?
(A) Rs. 1400
(B) Rs. 700
(C) Rs. 1000
(D) Rs.600
Answer: “Rs. 1000”
80. Master Raju a 5year old child is suffering from Severe acute malnutrition. He is admitted for nutritional correction and presently he is in transitional phase of
management. Which of the following is NOT a part of transitional phase?
(A) He has begun to loss oedema
(B) He is alert and active
(C) His appetite has improved
(D) He is on nasogastric feeding.
Answer: “He is on nasogastric feeding”
81. Elements of communication process includes all except
(A) Communicator
(B) mike
(C) message
(D) Audience
Answer: “mike”
82. Barriers of communication includes all except
(A) difficulty in hearing
(B) noise
(C) age
(D) emotional disturbances
Answer: “age”
83. What connects the sender to the receiver?
(A) Channel
(B) Communication
(C) Noise
(D) Feedback
Answer: “Channel”
84. The __________ in the usage of words may be a severe barrier to effective
communication.
(A) Disturbance
(B) Discrimination
(C) Disorder
(D) Distortion
Answer: “Distortion”
85. Most of us converse using ___ and ___ in addition to words when we speak.
(A) body language and posture
(B) gestures and body language
(C) words and gestures
(D) posture and eye gazing
Answer: “gestures and body language”
86. ________ refers to pitch, loudness, length, intonation, and tempo.
(A) Haptics
(B) Prosody
(C) Gestures
(D) Touches
Answer: “Prosody”
87. Which of the following is the main cause for transmission of the Hepatitis
virus?
(A) The bite of a mosquito
(B) Sharing drug needles
(C) Drinking contaminated water
(D) The bite of a bugs
Answer: “Sharing drug needles”
88. A primigravida at 38 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital with complaints of leaking fluid per vaginum. The nurse should assess which of the following to confirm rupture of membranes?
(A) Fetal heart rate
(B) Cervical dilation
(C) Nitrazine test
(D) Maternal blood pressure
Answer: “Nitrazine test”
89. A pregnant woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of
the following is the most appropriate management for this condition?
(A) Insulin therapy
(B) Oral hypoglycaemic agents
(C) Dietary modifications
(D) Regular exercise
Answer: “Dietary modifications”
90. Which of the following is a potential complication of postpartum?
haemorrhage?
(A) Uterine atony
(B) Oliguria
(C) Hypertension
(D) Placental abruption
Answer: “Uterine atony”
92. A newborn is assessed to have a heart rate of 80 beats per minute. What
should be the immediate nursing action?
(A) Administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
(B) Provide oxygen by mask
(C) Initiate kangaroo care
(D) Inform the healthcare provider
Answer: “Provide oxygen by mask”
94. Addition amount of calorie that should be taken by a pregnant woman
(A) 300 Kcal
(B) 500 Kcal
(C) 1000 Kcal
(D) 100 Kcal
Answer: “300 Kcal”
93. Golden colour of amniotic fluid is seen in
(A) Rh incompatibility
(B) Fetal distress
(C) Post maturity
(D)Intrauterine death
Answer: “Rh incompatibility”
94.Which hormone is helpful in the growth of ovarian follicles?
(A)FSH
(B)LH
(C)Estrogen
(D) Progesterone
Answer: “FSH”
95. Most common and ideal pelvis is?
(A) Android
(B) Gynecoid
(C) Platypelloid
(D) Anthropoid
Answer: “Gynecoid”
96. The wounded victim is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent but when
airway is repositioned breathing is noted. The wounded victim is assigned what
tag colour?
(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Black
Answer: “Red”
97. The wounded victim is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent and when
airway is repositioned breathing is still absent. The wounded victim is assigned
what tag colour?
(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Black
Answer: “Black”
98. The wounded victim is able to walk and obey commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag colour?
(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Black
Answer: “Green”
99. Which of the following acon is recommended for the patient with a needle
stick injury?
(A) Squeeze the finger
(B) Cut the finger and let out blood
(C) Wash with soap and water
(D) Put into mouth to suck the blood
Answer: “Wash with soap and water”
100. According to Spaulding’s classification, non-critical devices including BP cuff
and stethoscope to be disinfected with which level of disinfection?
(A) Heat-based sterilization
(B) Chemical stertlant
(C) High-level disinfectant
(D) Intermittent level of disinfectants
Answer: “Intermittent level of disinfectants”